QUESTION 1
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 2
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD |
QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 3
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Output from real device |
Router2901#sh int g0/0
GigabitEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is CN Gigabit Ethernet, address is c471.fe99.9999 (bia c471.fe99.9999) Description: Lan Internet address is 10.1.1.1/25 MTU 1500 bytes, BW 1000000 Kbit/sec, DLY 10 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full Duplex, 1Gbps, media type is RJ45 output flow-control is unsupported, input flow-control is unsupported ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of “show interface” counters never Input queue: 0/75/61/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 39000 bits/sec, 30 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 73000 bits/sec, 37 packets/sec 41068530 packets input, 3905407112 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 8678853 broadcasts (0 IP multicasts) 0 runts, 0 giants, 45 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 79853 multicast, 0 pause input 39267208 packets output, 2262399504 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 0 interface resets 79926 unknown protocol drops 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier, 0 pause output 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Router2901# Router2901 ip int g0/0 GigabitEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Internet address is 10.1.1.1/25 Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255 Address determined by non-volatile memory MTU is 1500 bytes Helper address is not set Directed broadcast forwarding is disabled Secondary address 192.168.1.7/24 Multicast reserved groups joined: 224.0.0.10 Outgoing access list is not set Inbound access list is not set Proxy ARP is enabled Local Proxy ARP is disabled Security level is default Split horizon is enabled ICMP redirects are always sent ICMP unreachables are always sent ICMP mask replies are never sent IP fast switching is enabled IP fast switching on the same interface is disabled IP Flow switching is disabled IP CEF switching is enabled IP CEF switching turbo vector IP multicast fast switching is enabled IP multicast distributed fast switching is disabled |
IP route-cache flags are Fast, CEF Router Discovery is disabled
IP output packet accounting is disabled IP access violation accounting is disabled TCP/IP header compression is disabled RTP/IP header compression is disabled Policy routing is disabled Network address translation is enabled, interface in domain inside BGP Policy Mapping is disabled Input features: Common Flow Table, Stateful Inspection, Virtual Fragment Reassembly, Virtual Fragment Reassembly After IPSec Decryption, CAR, MCI Check Output features: NAT Inside, Common Flow Table, Stateful Inspection, NAT ALG proxy, CAR Post encapsulation features: CAR IPv4 WCCP Redirect outbound is disabled IPv4 WCCP Redirect inbound is disabled IPv4 WCCP Redirect exclude is disabled Router2901# |
QUESTION 4
Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20 Switch(config- vlan)#switchport access vlan 20
Switch(config)#vlan 20 Switch(config)#Interface
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 5
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ABC |
QUESTION 6
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 8
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AB |
QUESTION 9
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 10
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AB |
QUESTION 11
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 12
The left describes the types of cables, while the right describes the purposes of the cables. Drag the items on the left to the proper locations. (Not all items can be used.) (THE COMMUNITY SHARED THAT THERE IS ANOTHER OPTION SO STUDY ALL OF WHAT THIS CABLES ARE FOR) |
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QUESTION 13
Match the items on the left with appropriate OSI layer on the right. (Not all options are used.) |
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QUESTION 14
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes? A. 10.0.0.0 /21 B. 10.0.0.0 /22 C. 10.0.0.0 /23 D. 10.0.0.0 /24 Correct Answer: B |
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 17
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 18
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration. Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 19
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
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Main(config-if)# no shut
Main(config-if)# no shut Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 20
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.) |
Correct Answer: BDF |
QUESTION 22
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 23
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
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Correct Answer: A QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem? |
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 25
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: |
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 27 Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 28
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29 What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: AEF |
QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ACE |
QUESTION 31
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 32 Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD |
QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed Switch B and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to Switch A . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown |
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 34
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BCE |
QUESTION 35
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
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Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 36 Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 37 Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD |
QUESTION 38
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 39 Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?
QUESTION 41 When an interface is configured with PortFast BPDU guard, how does the interface respond when it receives a BPDU?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 42
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BCF QUESTION 43 Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 44
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BE |
QUESTION 45
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BC |
QUESTION 46
What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed ?
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BCD |
QUESTION 50
Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: from W.Odom Official Cert Guide for ICND1 v3 Telcos offer a wide variety of speeds for leased lines. However, you cannot pick the exact speed you want; instead, you must pick from a long list of predefined speeds. Slower-speed links run at multiples of 64 kbps (kilobits per second), while faster links run at multiples of about 1.5 Mbps (megabits per second). Leased lines have many benefits that have led to their relatively long life in the WAN mar- ketplace. These lines are simple for the customer, are widely available, are of high quality, and are private. However, they do have some negatives as well compared to newer WAN technologies, including a higher cost and typically longer lead times to get the service installed. QUESTION 51 Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AE |
QUESTION 52
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 53 Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
QUESTION 54 Which statement about RADIUS security is true?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 55 If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send? A. 0-4 B. 0-5 C. 0-2 D. 0-6 E. 0-1 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference: Explanation:
0 emergencies System is unusable 1 alerts Immediate action is needed 2 critical Critical conditions exist
7 debugging Debugging messages QUESTION 56 What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)
QUESTION 57 What IP SLA ICMP Echo measures?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 58 What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three )
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QUESTION 59
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured ?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 60 What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 61 How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.)
Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 62 What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS ?
Correct Answer: A What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?
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QUESTION 64
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
Maybe this question wanted to ask “if the other end is configured with trunk/access/desirable mode” then which mode is compatible so that the link can work. In that case both “dynamic auto” and “dynamic desirable” mode are correct. The difference between these two modes is “dynamic auto” is passively waiting for the other end to request to form a trunk while “dynamic desirable” will actively attempt to negotiate to convert the link into a trunk. QUESTION 65 If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send ? A. 0-4 B. 0-5 C. 0-2 D. 0-6 E. 0-1 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Router(config)# logging trap level – Specifies the kind of messages, by severity level, to be sent to the syslog server. The default is informational (6) and lower ( 0 6). The possible values for level are as follows: Emergency: 0 Alert: 1 Critical: 2 Error: 3 Warning: 4 Notice: 5 Informational: 6 Debug: 7 |
QUESTION 66
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
QUESTION 67 Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?
QUESTION 68 Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 69 If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in another port, how many collision domains are present on the router?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 70
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 71 You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement? A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252 B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248 C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252 D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240 E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72 What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
QUESTION 73 Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AB |
QUESTION 74
Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?
QUESTION 75 A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 76 Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?
QUESTION 77 Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond precision?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 78
Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ADF QUESTION 79 Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?
QUESTION 80 Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20 ?
QUESTION 81 In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.) A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B Correct Answer: AE |
QUESTION 82
Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is caused by excessive end-to-end time?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 83
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to telnet to the switch from host fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue? |
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Correct Answer: C QUESTION 85 Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?
Correct Answer: E |
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit |
All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should
be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.) A. Link A 172.16.3.0/30 B. Link A 172.16.3.112/30 C. Network A 172.16.3.48/26 D. Network A 172.16.3.128/25 E. Link A 172.16.3.40/30 F. Network A 172.16.3.192/26 Correct Answer: AD |
QUESTION 87
Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing ?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 88 Which statement about LLDP is true?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89 If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over? A. switch 0040.00.90C5
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QUESTION 90
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
QUESTION 91 Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: BDF QUESTION 92 Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?
QUESTION 93 |
Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)
QUESTION 94 Refer to the exhibit The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem? |
QUESTION 95 Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP.No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 96 Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 97
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
UESTION 98 What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 99 Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 100 Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
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QUESTION 101
What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32 ? A. 172.16.1.0/26 B. 172.16.1.0/25 C. 172.16.1.0/24 D. the default route Correct Answer: A QUESTION 102 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 103 What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router ?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 104 Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP ?
Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ACD |
QUESTION 106
Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: FF02::1 ———— All Nodes (link-local) FF02::5 ———— OSPFv3 Routers FF02::6 ———— OSPFv3 Designated Routers FF02::A ———— EIGRPv3 Routers FF02::D ———— PIM Routers FF05::2 ———— All Routers (site-local) |
QUESTION 108
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)
QUESTION 109 What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BF QUESTION 110 Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 111 Refer to the exhibit. Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator’s next action be? |
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QUESTION 112 Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP ?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 113
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true ? (Choose two.
Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 115
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 116 Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ABC |
QUESTION 117
What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose Three.) A. 10.0.0.0 B. 10.4.3.0 C. 172.15.4.0 D. 172.15.0.0 E. 192.168.4.0 F. 192.168.0.0 Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 118 Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN ?
QUESTION 119 What does split horizon prevent?
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QUESTION 120
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
QUESTION 121 Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP ?
QUESTION 122 Which command is used to show the interface status of a router ?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 123 Which of the following privilege level is the most secured ?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 124 Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used ?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 125
Which two statements are true about IPv6 Unique Local Addresses ? (Choose Two.)
QUESTION 126 Which range represents the standard access list ? A. 99 B. 150 C. 299 D. 2000 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 127 What to do when the router password was forgotten ?
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 128 What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol ?
QUESTION 129 Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line ?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 130
How do you configure a hostname ? A. Router(config)#hostname R1 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 131 How do you maintain security in multiple websites?
QUESTION 132 Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
QUESTION 133 What routing protocol use first-hand information from peers?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 134
What field is consist of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q ?
QUESTION 135 What is new in HSRPv2 ?
QUESTION 136 What’s are true about MPLS ?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 137 A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be used?
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QUESTION 138
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols ?
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 139 What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan ?
QUESTION 140 Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location ? (Choose two)
QUESTION 141 Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system ?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 142
What command can you enter in config mode to create DHCP pool ?
QUESTION 143 Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?
QUESTION 144 What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping ? (Choose two)
QUESTION 145 What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization ? (Choose Three)
QUESTION 146 Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric ?
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QUESTION 147
Standard industrialized protocol of etherchannel ?
QUESTION 148 Two features of the extended ping command ? (Choose two)
QUESTION 149 What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server ?
QUESTION 150 Which two statements about syslog logging are true?
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference: tested on real hardware
Router2801#sh logging Syslog logging: enabled (11 messages dropped, 1 messages rate-limited, 0 flushes, 0 overruns, xml disabled, filtering disabled) No Active Message Discriminator. No Inactive Message Discriminator Console logging: level debugging, 348 messages logged, xml disabled, filtering disabled Monitor logging: level debugging, 0 messages logged, xml disabled, filtering disabled Buffer logging: level warnings, 56 messages logged, xml disabled, filtering disabled Logging Exception size (4096 bytes) Count and timestamp logging messages: disabled Persistent logging: disabled No active filter modules. ESM: 0 messages dropped Trap logging: level informational, 343 message lines logged Log Buffer (51200 bytes): *May 16 08:11:45: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access1, changed state to up *May 16 08:11:49: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to up May 16 08:22:11: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to down May 16 08:22:45: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to up May 16 08:35:25: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to down May 16 08:36:49: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to up May 16 10:25:02: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to down May 16 10:25:53: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to up May 16 17:49:46: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to down |
May 16 17:50:22: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to up Router2801#
————————————————————————– After reload: Router2801#sh logging Syslog logging: enabled (11 messages dropped, 1 messages rate-limited, 0 flushes, 0 overruns, xml disabled, filtering disabled) No Active Message Discriminator. No Inactive Message Discriminator. Console logging: level debugging, 26 messages logged, xml disabled, filtering disabled Monitor logging: level debugging, 0 messages logged, xml disabled, filtering disabled Buffer logging: level warnings, 2 messages logged, xml disabled, filtering disabled Logging Exception size (4096 bytes) Count and timestamp logging messages: disabled Persistent logging: disabled No active filter modules. ESM: 0 messages dropped Trap logging: level informational, 30 message lines logged Log Buffer (51200 bytes): *May 17 11:39:45: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access1, changed state to up *May 17 11:39:49: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Virtual-Access2, changed state to up Router2801# QUESTION 151 How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches ?
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QUESTION 152
Which password types are encrypted ?
QUESTION 153 What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address ? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 154 Which statement about ACLs is true ?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 155
What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 156
What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame ? (Choose Three.)
Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 157 Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem ?
QUESTION 158 Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan ?
QUESTION 159 In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked ?
Correct Answer: C |
![]() QUESTION 160 Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined to 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface ? A. ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 gi 0/1 B. ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 gi 0/1 C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 gi 0/1 D. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 gi 0/1 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 161 Which two protocol can detect native vlan mismatch errors? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD |
Explanation/Reference:
A |
Oct 5 23:29:16: %CDP-4-NATIVE_VLAN_MISMATCH: Native VLAN mismatch discovered on GigabitEthernet11/43 (512), with WS-C2950-12 FastEthernet0/6 (1)
D http://blog.ine.com/2008/07/17/pvst-explained/ Case 1: Change the native VLAN on SW1 connection to R3: SW1: interface FastEthernet 1/3 switchport trunk native vlan 2 Rack1SW2# %SPANTREE-2-RECV_PVID_ERR: Received BPDU with inconsistent peer vlan id 2 on FastEthernet1/3 VLAN1. %SPANTREE-2-BLOCK_PVID_PEER: Blocking FastEthernet1/3 on VLAN2. Inconsistent peer vlan.PVST+: restarted the forward delay timer for FastEthernet1/3 %SPANTREE-2-BLOCK_PVID_LOCAL: Blocking FastEthernet1/3 on VLAN1. Inconsistent local vlan.PVST+: restarted the forward delay timer for FastEthernet1/3 Note that SW2 detects untagged packet with VLAN ID 2, which does not correspond to the locally configured default native VLAN 1. The corresponding port is put in «inconsistent» state. The reason SW2 detects this condition (and not SW1) is because SW1 sending SSTP BPDUs and SW2 is not (it receives superios BPDUs). As soon as native VLAN is converted back to «1» on SW1, consistency is restored: |
QUESTION 162
Which three options are switchport config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error between the switches? (Choose Three.)
Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.pathsolutions.com/network-enemy-1-duplex-mismatch/ |
QUESTION 163
What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two.)
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://smallbusiness.chron.com/advantages-disadvantages-using-private-ip-address- space-46424.html QUESTION 164 How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address ? A. 32 B. 48 C. 64 D. 128 Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/30836/calculate-networking- bits-for-ipv6 64 bits for Nwtwork ID and 64 bits for Interface ID 64+64=128 QUESTION 165 An interface which we have to determine from the routing the route learned by which routing protocol?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 166
Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches ?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: In a Hub-and-spoke Site-to- Site Wide Area Network (WAN) network topology, one physical site act as Hub (Example, Main Office), while other physical sites act as spokes. Spoke sites are connected to each other via Hub site. In Hub-and-spoke Wide Area Network (WAN) topology, the network communication between two spokes always travels through the hub. QUESTION 167 Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?
QUESTION 168 If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send ?
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QUESTION 169
Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)
Correct Answer: CEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://tacacs.net/docs/TACACS_Advantages.pdf QUESTION 170 What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model’s INTERNET layer ?
Correct Answer: E QUESTION 171 Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BE |
QUESTION 172
Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: rfc4862 in which wrote: Appendix C. Changes since RFC 2462 Major changes that can affect existing implementations: o Avoided the wording of “stateful configuration”, which is known to be quite confusing, and simply used “DHCPv6” wherever appropriate. In Obsolete RFC 2462: IPv6 defines both a stateful and stateless address autoconfiguration mechanism. … In the stateful autoconfiguration model, hosts obtain interface addresses and/or configuration information and parameters from a server. QUESTION 173 A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions ?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 174 How to verify strong and secured SSH connection ?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 175
How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 ?
C. 16 D. 14 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 176 What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection ?
QUESTION 177 Which cisco platform can verify ACLs ?
QUESTION 178 In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security administrator must be able to correlate system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the alert. Which of the following should the security administrator implement in order to meet this requirement?
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QUESTION 179
When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device ?
QUESTION 180 If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you configure the setting ?
QUESTION 181 Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution ?
QUESTION 182 Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 183
Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list ?
QUESTION 184 How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from the routing table ?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Change from “it discards the packet” to “it routes the packet to the default route” because there is new question Which definition of default route is true? with answer “A route used when a destination route is missing.” QUESTION 185 Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
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QUESTION 186
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.) ?
Correct Answer: ABF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/10583- 62.html#topic5 “The active router sources hello packets from its configured IP address and the HSRP virtual MAC address. The standby router sources hellos from its configured IP address and the burned- in MAC address (BIA).” http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/10583- 62.html#topic14 “By default, these timers are set to 3 and 10 seconds, respectively…” http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6000-series- switches/29545-168.html#q1 Load Sharing with HSRP http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/13781- 7.html#conf “…has a 256 unique HSRP group ID limit.” “…the allowed group ID range (0-255). … MSFC2A (Supervisor Engine 32) can use any number of group IDs from that range. |
QUESTION 187
Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology ( choose 2) ?
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 188 How to trouble DNS issue ( choose two) ?
Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr1907.html# wp1021264 Ping the destination by name perform a DNS lookup on the destination QUESTION 189 Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules ?
Correct Answer: B |
QUESTION 190
What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 191 Which 2 statements about extended traceroute command is true?
Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13730- ext-pingtrace.html#ext_troute “This table lists the traceroute command field descriptions: Source address: The interface or IP address of the router to use as a source address for the probes. The router normally picks the IP address of the outbound interface to use. Minimum Time to Live [1]: The TTL value for the first probes. The default is 1, but it can be set to a higher value to suppress the display of known hops. Maximum Time to Live [30]: The largest TTL value that can be used. The default is 30. The traceroute command terminates when the destination is reached or when this value is reached. QUESTION 192 Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) |
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
http://www.aubrett.com/InformationTechnology/RoutingandSwitching/Cisco/CiscoRouter s/ DHCPBindings.aspx “Router#show ip dhcp binding Bindings from all pools not associated with VRF: IP address Client-ID/ Lease expiration Type 10.16.173.0 24d9.2141.0ddd Jan 12 2013 03:42 AM Automatic” QUESTION 193 Which statement about SNMPv2 is true ?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/configfun/configuration/guide/ffun_c/ fcf014.html#wp1010901 “Model Level Authentication Encryption What Happens v2c noAuthNoPriv Community String No Uses a community string match for authentication.” So B & D must be wrong, because there is no “password” in SNMPv2. A is wrong because there is no encryption in SNMPv2. QUESTION 194 Which symptom most commonly indicates that 2 connecting interface are configured with a duplex mismatch?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 195
Which VTP mode can not make a change to vlan?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: VTP Client
QUESTION 196 Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipsla/configuration/15-mt/sla-15-mt- book/ sla_icmp_pathjitter.html QUESTION 197 Which mode are in PAgP? (choose two)
Correct Answer: AB |
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp- and-lacp-modes.php QUESTION 198 In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 199 Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.) A. 802.1d B. VTP C. 802.1q
Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 200 At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
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QUESTION 201
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links?(Choose three.)
Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 202 Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Time To Live (TTL)/Hop Limit (8 bits) http://ipv6.com/articles/general/IPv6-Header.htm QUESTION 203 which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 204
which 2 optns are requirements for configuring ripv2 for ipv4 (choose 2 ) ?
Correct Answer: DE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ip/configuration/guide/fipr_c/1cfrip.ht ml#wp1000889 “Enabling RIP (Required) Allowing Unicast Updates for RIP (Required)” RIP Version 1 and Version 2 have the same basic requirements! QUESTION 205 which configuration command can u apply to a hsrp router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
QUESTION 206 which 2 statement about EIGRP on IPv6 device is true ?
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/enhanced-interior-gateway-routing- protocol-eigrp/113267- eigrp-ipv6-00.html |
QUESTION 207
which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignment ?
QUESTION 208 which three technical services support cloud computing ?
QUESTION 209 which two steps must you perform to enbale router- on- stick on a switch ?
QUESTION 210 which add prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a single interface ?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15- sy/iro-15-sy-book/ip6-routeospfv3.html#GUID-05F3F09C-FE3E-41D6-9845-111FB17AD030 |
“In IPv6, you can configure many address prefixes on an interface. In OSPFv3, all address prefixes on an interface are included by default. You cannot select some address prefixes to be imported into OSPFv3; either all address prefixes on an interface are imported, or no address prefixes on an interface are imported.”
QUESTION 211 which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer ? A. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64 B. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1 C. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32 D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256 E. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128 Correct Answer: E QUESTION 212 CIDR notation (255.255.255.252 ) / notation ? A. 30 B. 31 C. 32 D. 33 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 213 Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct ? (Choose two)
QUESTION 214 What is known as ―one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6 ?
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QUESTION 215
When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with :
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2180208&seqNum=9 QUESTION 216 Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( 2 options)
QUESTION 217 how to see dhcp conflict ?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: |
QUESTION 218
What type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 219 Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Network access control and segmentation of classesof users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component identifies users who are authorized toaccess the network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition. QUESTION 220 Which two statements about firewalls are true ?
Correct Answer: AB |
QUESTION 221
Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true ? ( Choose two)
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 222 Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP ?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 223 Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
QUESTION 224 How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?
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QUESTION 225
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack ? (Choose three)
Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 226 What does split-horizon do?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 227
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF Which action can you take to correct the problem?
Correct Answer: B |
Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15-sy/iro-15-sy- book/ip6-route-ospfv3.html Prerequisites for IPv6 Routing: OSPFv3 Complete the OSPFv3 network strategy and planning for your IPv6 network. For example, you must decide whether multiple areas are required. Enable IPv6 unicast routing. Enable IPv6 on the interface. |
QUESTION 228
How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 229 Which three statements correcctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.) |
Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 230 At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4. |
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior to another if it has:
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role). |
QUESTION 231
Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 232 The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.) |
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Correct Answer: BD |
QUESTION 233
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between the two devices in a network?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Previously was path analysis, but I think its ACL analysis |
QUESTION 234
Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a local network? A. 802.1x B. 802.11 C. 802.2x D. 802.3x Correct Answer: A IEEE 802.1X is an IEEE Standard for port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN QUESTION 235 When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?
QUESTION 236 If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1, meaning it will be preferred over all dynamic routing protocols. If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the static route be used only as a backup, you need to increase the AD of the static route so that it is higher than the dynamic routing protocol. QUESTION 237 Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)
QUESTION 238 Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet ? A. 192.168.14.4 B. 192.168.12.2 C. 192.168.13.3 D. 192.168.15.5 Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 239
What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list? A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router. B. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface. C. It can disable the overload command. D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 240 How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts ? A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times. B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease. D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The DHCP lifecycle consists of the following: Release: The client may decide at any time that it no longer wishes to use the IP address it was assigned, and may terminate the lease, releasing the IP address. QUESTION 241 Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
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QUESTION 242
Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: 255.255.255.224 = /27 QUESTION 243 Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true? |
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Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only. But, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different. QUESTION 244 Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)
Correct Answer: ACD |
![]() QUESTION 245 When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting? A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue. B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected. C. When you have gathered all information about an issue. D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 246 Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices ? (Choose TWO)
C. Show clock. D. Show time. E. Show ntp status. Correct Answer: AE |
QUESTION 247
When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: PortFast causes a switch or trunk port to enter the spanning tree forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states. You can use PortFast on switch or trunk ports that are connected to a single workstation, switch, or server to allow those devices to connect to the network immediately, instead of waiting for the port to transition from the listening and learning states to the forwarding state. QUESTION 248 Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible paths to the destination over different routing protocols?
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QUESTION 249
Which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?
QUESTION 250 What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server ?
QUESTION 251 Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?
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QUESTION 252
On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?
QUESTION 253 Refer to the exhibit. If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.101.45 the traffic is sent through which interface?
QUESTION 254 Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: |
QUESTION 255
Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
QUESTION 256 Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
QUESTION 257 Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?
Correct Answer: AD |
QUESTION 258
Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?
http://bradhedlund.com/2007/11/27/switchport-configurations-explained/ QUESTION 259 When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you must perform?
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QUESTION 260
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configure the Switch Port to Carry Both Voice and Data TrafficWhen you connect an IP phone to a switch using a trunk link, it can cause high CPU utilization in the switches. As all the VLANs for a particular interface are trunked to the phone, it increases the number of STP instances the switch has to manage. This increases the CPU utilization. Trunking also causes unnecessary broadcast / multicast / unknown unicast traffic to hit the phone link. In order to avoid this, remove the trunk configuration and keep the voice and access VLAN configured along with Quality of Service (QoS). Technically, it is still a trunk, but it is called a Multi-VLAN Access Port (MVAP). Because voice and data traffic can travel through the same port, you should specify a different VLAN for each type of traffic. You can configure a switch port to forward voice and data traffic on different VLANs. Configure IP phone ports with a voice VLAN configuration. This configuration creates a pseudo trunk, but does not require you to manually prune the unnecessary VLANs. The voice VLAN feature enables access ports to carry IP voice traffic from an IP phone. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default. The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled QUESTION 261 Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 262
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
QUESTION 263 What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one- day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid. To change the lease value for an IP address, use the following command in DHCP pool configuration mode: QUESTION 264 Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) |
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Network address translation (NAT) is the process of modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device. There are two different types of NAT: NAT PAT QUESTION 265 Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 266 Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
Correct Answer: D https://www.freeccnaworkbook.com/workbooks/ccna/configuring-inter-vlan-routing- router-on-a-stick |
QUESTION 267
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 268 Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
You can use the passive-interface command in order to control the advertisement of routing information. The command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while it allows updates to be exchanged normally over other interfaces. With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command restricts outgoing advertisements only. But, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different. This document demonstrates that use of the passive-interface command in EIGRP suppresses the exchange of hello packets between two routers, which results in the loss of their neighbor relationship. This stops not only routing updates from being advertised, but it also suppresses incoming routing updates. This document also discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing updates, while it also allows incoming routing updates to be learned normally from the neighbor |
QUESTION 270
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
QUESTION 271 Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
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Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference: Default Administrative distance of EIGRP protocol is 90 then answer is C. QUESTION 272 Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 273 Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: |
QUESTION 274
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Administrative distance – This is the measure of trustworthiness of the source of the route. If a router learns about a destination from more than one routing protocol, administrative distance is compared and the preference is given to the routes with lower administrative distance. In other words, it is the believability of the source of the route QUESTION 275 Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process? A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66 B. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77 C. 32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65 D. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 276 Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) |
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Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 277 For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
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QUESTION 278
2 authentication type of MLPPP
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 279 What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.firewall.cx/networking-topics/network-address-translation-nat/233-nat- overload-part-1.html QUESTION 280 What are the requirements for running VTP (choose two)
Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) |
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12- 2_52_se/configuration/guide/3560scg/ swvtp.html ” Follow these guidelines when deciding which VTP version to implement: •All switches in a VTP domain must have the same domain name, but they do not need to run the same VTP version. •A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1 if version 2 is disabled on the version 2-capable switch (version 2 is disabled by default). “ QUESTION 281 What is the use of IPv4 private space (choose two)
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 282 Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.) A. 172.16.9.0 B. 172.16.8.0 C. 172.16.31.0 D. 172.16.20.0 Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) |
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 283 Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 284 Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: |
QUESTION 285
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 286 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
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QUESTION 287
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
QUESTION 288 Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
QUESTION 289 What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?
Correct Answer: D |
QUESTION 290
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
QUESTION 291 Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 292 Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
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QUESTION 293
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 294 which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?
Which NTP type designates a router without an external reference clock as an authoritative time source?
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QUESTION 296
Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three)
Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse 2) A. 50 B. 1550 C. 150 D. 1250 E. 2050 Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 298 When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device?
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QUESTION 299
What are two statement for SSH?
If a route is not present in the routing table for a particular destination, what would the router do?
Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.
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Correct Answer: C QUESTION 302
Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 303 Which item represents the standard IP ACL? A. Access-list 110 permit any any B. Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
QUESTION 304 Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
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QUESTION 305
Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses. QUESTION 306 What is one benefit of PVST+?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The PVST+ provides Layer 2 load-balancing for the VLAN on which it runs. You can create different logical topologies by using the VLANs on your network to ensure that all of your links are used but that no one link is oversubscribed. Each instance of PVST+ on a VLAN has a single root switch. This root switch propagates the spanning-tree information associated with that VLAN to all other switches in the network. Because each switch has the same information about the network, this process ensures that the network topology is maintained and optimized per VLAN. |
QUESTION 307
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame. QUESTION 308 Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
Each switch in your network will have a Bridge ID Priority value, more commonly referred to as a BID. This BID is a combination of a default priority value and the switch’s MAC address, with the priority value listed first. The lowest BID will win the election process. For example, if a Cisco switch has the default priority value of 32,768 and a MAC address of 11-22-33-44-55-66, the BID would be 32768:11-22-33-44-55-66. Therefore, if the switch priority is left at the default, the MAC address is the deciding factor in the root bridge election. QUESTION 309 Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/cloud-systems-management/application-policy- infrastructure-controller-enterprise- module/index.html Automate network configuration and setup Deploy network devices faster Automate device deployment and provisioning across the enterprise. Provide a programmable network Enable developers to create new applications that use the network to fuel business growth. |
QUESTION 310
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: ICMP pings are used to verify connectivity between two IP hosts. Traceroute is used to verify the router hop path traffic will take but in this case since the hosts are in the same LAN there will be no router hops involved. QUESTION 311 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: DF Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
In order for multiple VLANs to connect to a single physical interface on a Cisco router, subinterfaces must be used, one for each VLAN. This is known as the router on a stick configuration. Also, for any trunk to be formed, both ends of the trunk must agree on the encapsulation type, so each one must be configured for 802.1q or ISL. QUESTION 312 What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become the root port on each non -root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will become root port (on non-root switch). QUESTION 313 Refer to the exhibit. lf RTRO1 as configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running ElGRP on the network? (Choose three.) |
A. 172.16.4.O
B. 1O.O.O.O C. 172.16.O.O D. 192.168.2.O E. 192.168.O.O F. 1O.4.3.O Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 314 Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: http://tacacs.net/docs/TACACS_Advantages.pdf Many IT departments choose to use AAA (Authentication, Authorization and Accounting) protocols RADIUS or TACACS+ to address these issues. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/terminal-access-controller- access-control-system-tacacs-/13865-tacplus.pdf This document describes how to configure a Cisco router for authentication with the TACACS+ that runs on UNIX. TACACS+ does not offer as many features as the commercially available Cisco Secure ACS for Windows or Cisco Secure ACS UNIX. |
TACACS+ software previously provided by Cisco Systems has been discontinued and is no longer supported by Cisco Systems.
QUESTION 315 Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) is an enhancement of the original STP 802.1D protocol. The RSTP 802.1w protocol is an IEEE open implementation. Cisco has its own proprietary implementation of RSTP, that includes the benefits of its Per-VLAN spanning tree protocols, called Rapid-PVST+. To activate the Rapid-PVST+ protocol: switch(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst QUESTION 316 A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 317 VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The “switchport access vlan 3″will put that interface as belonging to VLAN 3 while also updated the VLAN database automatically to include VLAN 3. QUESTION 318 Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
A “native VLAN mismatch” error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an 802.1Q link. “VLAN mismatch” can cause traffic from one vlan to leak into another vlan. QUESTION 319 Refer to the exhibit All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches must be configured as trunk ports. QUESTION 320 What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default. QUESTION 321 Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/7039- 1.html#t6 OSPF Cost The cost (also called metric) of an interface in OSPF is an indication of the overhead required to send packets across a certain interface. The cost of an interface is inversely proportional to the bandwidth of that interface. A higher bandwidth indicates a lower cost. There is more overhead (higher cost) and time delays involved in crossing a 56k serial line than crossing a 10M ethernet line. The formula used to calculate the cost is: cost= 10000 0000/bandwith in bps For example, it will cost 10 EXP8/10 EXP7 = 10 to cross a 10M Ethernet line and will cost 10 EXP8/1544000 = 64 to cross a T1 line. By default, the cost of an interface is calculated based on the bandwidth; you can force the cost of an interface with the ip ospf cost <value> interface subconfiguration mode command. QUESTION 322 Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: The “show users” shows telnet/ssh connections to your router while “show sessions” shows telnet/ssh connections from your router (to other devices). The question asks about “your active Telnet connections”, meaning connections from your router |
QUESTION 323
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
Correct Answer: C |
QUESTION 324
Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24 network can ping their default gateway, but they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 325 Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: |
QUESTION 326
Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)
QUESTION 327 Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has just been set?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 328 Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
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D. Network mask
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: IP Routing Table Entry Types An entry in the IP routing table contains the following information in the order presented: Network ID. The network ID or destination corresponding to the route. The network ID can be class- based, subnet, or supernet network ID, or an IP address for a host route. Network Mask. The mask that is used to match a destination IP address to the network ID. Next Hop. The IP address of the next hop. Interface. An indication of which network interface is used to forward the IP packet. Metric. A number used to indicate the cost of the route so the best route among possible multiple routes to the same destination can be selected. A common use of the metric is to indicate the number of hops (routers crossed) to the network ID. Routing table entries can be used to store the following types of routes: Directly Attached Network IDs. Routes for network IDs that are directly attached. For directly attached networks, the Next Hop field can be blank or contain the IP address of the interface on that network. Remote Network IDs. Routes for network IDs that are not directly attached but are available across other routers. For remote networks, the Next Hop field is the IP address of a local router in between the forwarding node and the remote network. Host Routes. A route to a specific IP address. Host routes allow routing to occur on a per-IP address ba- sis. For host routes, the network ID is the IP address of the specified host and the network mask is 255.255.255.255. Default Route. The default route is designed to be used when a more specific network ID or host route is not found. The default route network ID is 0.0.0.0 with the network mask of 0.0.0.0. QUESTION 329 How can you disable DTP on a switch port? A. Configure the switch port as a trunk. |
QUESTION 330 How is the redundancy represented in ntp master?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: NTP redundancy http://sflanders.net/2015/02/09/time-hard-proper-ntp-configuration/ QUESTION 331 Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
Which technology can enable multiple vlan to communicate with one another ? A. Intra-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch |
QUESTION 333 Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 334 Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet ?
interface Loopback0 ip address 172.16.1.33 255.255.255.224 router bgp 999 neighbor 10.1.5.2 remote-as 65001 Refer to the exhibit . Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers? A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224 B. Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 C. Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224 |
D. Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31 F. Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 336 Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?
QUESTION 337 Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: BG Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: |
Since static routing is a manual process, it can be argued that it is more secure (and more prone to human errors) since the network administrator will need to make changes to the routing table directly. Also, in stub networks where there is only a single uplink connection, the load is reduced as stub routers just need a single static default route, instead of many routes that all have the same next hop IP address.
QUESTION 338 Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: An address conflict occurs when two hosts use the same IP address. During address assignment, DHCP checks for conflicts using ping and gratuitous ARP. If a conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool. The address will not be assigned until the administrator resolves the conflict. QUESTION 339 Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
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F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network protocol used to configure devices that are connected to a network (known as hosts) so they can communicate on that network using the Internet Protocol (IP). It involves clients and a server operating in a client-server model. DHCP servers assigns IP addresses from a pool of addresses and also assigns other parameters such as DNS and default gateways to hosts. QUESTION 340 Which definition of default route is true?
QUESTION 341 Which value must the device send as its username when using CHAP to authenticate with the remote peer site id:17604704 over a PPP link?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) |
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/10241- ppp-callin-hostname.html Simulations QUESTION 1 Refer to the topology below and answer the questions using “show” commands. |
![]() Question 1 Server1 and Server2 are unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Your initial check with system administrators shows that IP address settings are correctly configured on the server side. What could be an issue?
Explanation/Reference: R2 – show running-config QUESTION 2 Refer to the topology below and answer the questions using “show” commands. |
Question 2 ![]() Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You observe that internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on Router R1. What could be an issue? Ping to Internet server shows the following results from R1: R1#ping 209.165.200.225 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 209.165.200.225, timeout is 2 seconds: ….. Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R1 – ping 209.165.200.225 R1 – show ip route R1 – show running-config |
QUESTION 3
Refer to the topology below and answer the questions using “show” commands. Question 3 Examine R2 configuration, the traffic that is destined to R3 LAN network sourced from Router R2 is forwarded to R1 instead R3. What could be an issue? R2#traceroute 10.10.12.1 source 10.10.10.1 Type escape sequence to abort. Tracing the route to 10.10.12.1 VRF info: (vrf in name/id, vrf out name/id) 1 172.16.14.1 0 msec 1 msec 0 msec 2 172.16.14.1 !H !H * R2#
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) |
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: R2 – traceroute 10.10.12.1 source 10.10.10.1 R2 – show ip route R3 – show running-config QUESTION 4 Refer to the topology below and answer the questions using “show” commands. Question 4 What is the correct statement below after examining the R1 routing table?
Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: R1 – show ip route R1 – show running-config |
QUESTION 5
Question 1 Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3, R2 is configured as the DHCP server and R3 as the client. What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation |
Explanation/Reference: R3 – show run
R3 – show ip interface brief QUESTION 6 Refer to the topology below and answer the questions. Question 2 R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router. R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from R1. But you observe that R2 clock is not synchronized with R1. What is the reason R2 is not receiving NTP updates from R1?
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: R1 – show ip interface brief R2 – show ip interface brief R2 – show running-config |
QUESTION 7
Refer to the topology below and answer the questions. Question 3 Why applications that are installed on PC’s in R2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to communicate with Server1?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R1 – ping 172.16.200.250 R2 – sh run |
QUESTION 8
Refer to the topology below and answer the questions. Question 4 Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
Correct Answer: A |
QUESTION 9
The topology below is running EIGRP. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues. The loopback interfaces on R4 with the IP addresses of 10.4.4.4/32, 10.4.4.5/32 and 10.4.4.6/32 are not appearing in the routing table of R5. Why are the interfaces missing?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R4 – sh run R5 – sh run Maybe answer D (another version) |
QUESTION 10
The topology below is running EIGRP. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues. Question 2 Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R5 – sh run R1 – show ip route Maybe answer C (another version) QUESTION 11 The topology below is running EIGRP. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP |
Question 3
Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. What is the cause for this misconfiguration?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R6 – sh run Maybe answer A (another version) R1 – sh run QUESTION 12 The topology below is running EIGRP. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve the EIGRP issues between the various routers. Use the appropriate show commands to troubleshoot the issues. Question 4 Study the following output taken on R1: R1#ping 10.5.5.55 source 10.1.1.1 Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.5.5.55, timeout is 2 seconds: Packet sent with a source address of 10.1.1.1 . . . . . Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) Why are the pings failing?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) |
Explanation
Explanation/Reference: R1 – sh run QUESTION 13 Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. Question 1 An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R3 – sh run R4 – sh run QUESTION 14 Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. |
![]() Question 2 An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?
Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R3 – sh run R5 – sh run R3 – sh ip ospf int s1/1 R5 – sh ip ospf int s1/0 |
QUESTION 15
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. Question 3 R1 does not form an OSPF neighbor adjacency with R2. Which option would fix the issue?
Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R1 – sh run R2 – sh run Maybe answer A (another version) |
QUESTION 16
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. Question 4 An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3 office. What is causing the problem?
Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: R3 – sh run R6 – sh run Maybe only one router has the “ppp authentication chap |
QUESTION 17
Question Security is being added to the Corp1 router. The user on host C should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there are multiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed. The task is to create and apply a numbered access- list with no more than three statements that will allow ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted. Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host. All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”. The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65 The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 192.168.33.254 Host A 192.168.33.1 Host B 192.168.33.2 Host C 192.168.33.3 Host D 192.168.33.4 The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30 The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23. The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17 |
Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Modification 1 (Mod 1): Permit host B from accessing finance server access-list 100 permit ip host 192.168.33.2 host 172.22.242.23 Deny host B from accessing other servers (not the whole network) access-list 100 deny ip host 192.168.33.2 172.22.242.16 0.0.0.15 Modification 2 (Mod 2): Only allow Host C to to access the financial server access-list 100 permit ip host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 Not allow anyone else in any way communicate with the financial server access-list 100 deny ip any host 172.22.242.23 Modification 3 (Mod 3):
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Modification 4 (Mod 4):
Host C should be able to use a web browser to access the financial web server access-list 100 permit tcp host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 eq 80 Other types of access from host C to the finance web server should be blocked access-list 100 deny ip host 192.168.33.3 host 172.22.242.23 |